Faced with an issue. Kindly enlighten me on this please. Bullets to keep it simple.
31Oct - buy 50 shares
09Nov - buy 49950 more
12Nov - buy 34000 more (T1 status)
Total shares 84000. Average 56.22/-
14Nov - sell 6940 shares for 57/-
14Nov - (same day) sell 77060 shares for 56.95/-
sold all shares (84,000) at 56.954 average
14Nov - (same day) buy 80,000 shares back in the following fashion
25000 - 56.25/-
25000 - 56.00/-
25000 - 55.55/-
5000 - 53.50/-
Total shares 80,000. Average (as per my understanding) 55.79/- (lower from last ave 56.22)
17Nov - Average shown on Kite is 56.60 (way higher than the highest buy price 56.25)
17Nov - I call support and the guy assures me that it will be corrected by Monday
19Nov - Average same. I raise a ticket to support with trade book reference copy.
21st Nov - I get reply that value shown is correct (56.60) with an .et attachment
that cannot be opened even after installing (some) Kingsoft software! Reason stated is
that it was considered intraday trade. Its was a very vague answer with an odd file
attachment. Whatever happened to the excel which most humans use (!?)
#1 Anyway, question is, if I had sold 84,000 (in which 34,000 T1) shares for 56.954/- as
average and bought back 80,000 shares on the same day for 55.79/- is there any
possibility for the AVERAGE to GO HIGHER than the buy average because the stocks
were not delivered into my demat account?
#2 If so, please enlighten my ignorance in this regard as to how average would change
for an ‘commodity’ I bought for a ‘specific’ price. Intraday or not, what does it have
to do with the ‘price’ at which I bought a ‘commodity’. Am I losing cash or am I
missing something critical? Or does it deserve an escalation to the next level.
Asking for your kind guidance before taking next step.
Thanking your time, Raj