Non liquid stock

Hi. I was playing around with orders and by mistake executed 85000pe March buy and 82000pe April sell in mrf. This was for a not so high premium.
I did not find a lot of buyer for 85000pe but fortunately after a few days sold at minimal profit.
Now 82000pe has no sellers and since it’s April expiry it may become ITM.
If I do not find any sellers and it becomes deep itm what will happen? I do not have enough cash to settle and in that case during the 2 days before expiry there will be margin shortfall. Will zerodha square off the position? If there are no buyers how will zerodha square off?
If it remains OTM then no issues as long as I can manage the margin requirement during the expiry.
Please advice.

If your position is ITM upon expiry, Short Put will result in you taking delivery of the underlying shares. If you don’t have sufficient funds to take delivery your account will result in a debit balance, You are required to bring in funds if your account results in a debit balance after physical delivery failing which the delivered shares will be liquidated to make good of the debit balance. Interest will be charged at 0.05% per day on the debit balance in the account. You can learn more on physical settlement here.

If there are no buyers, even RMS won’t be able to square-off the position.

Just for my easy understanding i am putting up some numbers, this is a possible scenario if the option turns ITM during expiry.
2 days before expiry I will have margin shortfall which will be charged at 1% as penalty. Assume total margin shortfall is 4l. So 4k for 2 days.
On expiry day, I will have to take physical delivery i.e. 82000*10 = 8.2l. Lets assume I have a debit balance of 7l to this (as I have pledged stocks for maintaining margin balance + some cash lets say 1.6l pledge + 1.2l cash)
So on this 7l I will be penalized 0.5% for T+2 days i.e. 0.5% on 7l i.e. 3.5k/day. Until Friday my balance sheet will be -7l
On Monday, I can sell the MRF stock at CMP and close the debit balance.

So max loss would be
2 days before expiry margin shortfall - 24k = 8k
2 days after expiry debit balance - 2
3.5k = 7k
82000-CMP * 10 = xxx.

Is my total understanding correct? Pl let me know.

Any help here

your interpretations are right but interest charges on debit balance is 0.05 percent not 0.5… that is where you are wrong…