Hi,
Since the implementation of the T+1 cycle, certain stocks still continue to observe a record date that falls one day after the ex-dividend date. This occurrence is primarily attributed to the presence of a holiday immediately following the ex-dividend date. Traditionally, selling shares on the ex-dividend date entitles an individual to receive dividends. However, in the scenario where the record date is set as ex-date+1, and considering that shareholders who hold shares in their demat accounts on the record date are typically eligible for corporate actions, do I need to hold my shares on the record date to be eligible for dividend payment?
Sincerely,