How the dp charges levied?. I only know that they are not applicable for intraday.
What if i sold it within t+2 days not on the same day. Is then dp charges are levid
No they are not. Please read the post above.
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DP charges are a form of charges because thereās no free lunch.
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Why are they charged? The same reason why you make money or why everyone gets up in the morning. Again, thereās no free lunch.
What are you even talking about? SMH.
Hi, does dp charges apply if you sell your shares on t1 Or t2 in cnc? If they apply, how much is it then? Also, if I can use cnc to sell shares either today, tomorrow with intraday charges why donāt we use it? Why do we use it then? Please help me on this.
You donāt have to pay DP charges if you sell on T+1 day, if you sell on T+2 you will be charged and charges are Rs.15 (irrespective of quantity).
Not able to understand your question, can you rephrase?
If I sell a share using intraday on same day the day I bought it then I can also do it using CNC, right? If it is right then why people still opt for intraday instead of CNC, as whatever we can do with intraday can be done with CNC plus CNC decreases the risk also.
You get leverage for intraday trades when you use product code MIS. All the positions under the EQ MIS and F&O MIS product code will get automatically squared off at 3:20 pm and at 3:25 pm respectively.
Using CNC product code you will not get any leverage nor will your position be auto squared off.
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Thanks a lot for clearing it.
Add to that when you trade with intraday order types you can also use Stop-Loss and save yourself from sudden swing in price movement and not only that, using compulsory SL helps you remain desciplined.
What are the DP charges and how are they charged?
Are they charged on every sell transaction?
Are they charged once on every scrip, no matter how many sell transactions we make for that scrip?
Or is it something else?
Read this, it explains everything.
Thanks!
I did the same but received debit notice as SMS and email from the NSE.
Is this means debit transaction has occurred right and Iām going to be charged?
I bought on 17th :
Sold on 18th June :
Transaction Alert on 19th :
I have SBI in my holdings too, looks like shares got debited first and then the credit took place.
Sir/Mam,
I read the entire thread.
2 doubts based on the entire thread.
1.What is the logic behind no charges when holding sold at T+1 days and being charged when sold at T+2 days?
2.What is the DP charge for below example?
on 20/6-Bought the 200 shares
21/6-sold 150 shares
22/6-sold 25 shares
23/6-bought 25 shares
24/6-sold 50 shares
Thanks &Regards,
Sairam Singh
On T+1 day when End of Day settlement happens shares arenāt in your Demat account, hence no charge. On T+2 day when EOD settlement happens shares are in your Demat account, thatās why you are charged.
No DP charges on 21.
DP charges will be charged on 22 and 24.
Yes.
If you already have shares in your Demat, those will be debited first.
Thank you Sir for your response.
Just a follow up question on the same.
1 Is Risk associated with T+1(as it is not settled in the account yet) is higher than T+2 days(as it is in our demat account)?
2.For the above example,
Total DP charges for both 22 and 25 is 15.93 and not 31.86,isnāt it?
Regards,
Sairam SIngh